Food Manager Practice Test

Studying for the ServSafe Manager exam or another accredited food protection manager exam? This free practice test has 47 manager-level questions, written from the FDA Food Code, on the topics those exams test most: foodborne pathogens, cooking and cooling, receiving and storage, the Big 6 and employee health, HACCP, sanitizing, and pests. Every answer comes with an explanation and a link to the part of our Food Manager Certification: How to Pass the Exam that covers it.

Prefer to review by ear? "ServSafe Manager Audio Cram," our own audio review from Kanti Press, walks through the manager-level material from the 2022 FDA Food Code so you can study on a commute or between shifts.

Want a full-length run before exam day? The book's free companion is a 90-question practice exam in the real exam's format, with a printable answer sheet and an answer key that explains every answer: download the PDF or open it in your browser.

Manager questions and answers

Take the test first: this section gives the answers away. Here is every question in the manager bank, grouped by topic, with the rule behind each answer.

Foodborne illness

1. 1Most TCS foods support bacterial growth because they are:

   1. Neutral to slightly acidic and moist
   2. High in sugar and dry
   3. Frozen solid
   4. Highly acidic and dry

   Answer: A. Neutral to slightly acidic and moist

   FAT TOM: bacteria grow best in moist food (water activity 0.85 or higher) with a pH between about 4.6 and 7.5, held in the danger zone over time. Review this in the food manager exam guide

2. 2Which virus is spread by infected workers through ready-to-eat food and contaminated shellfish, and can cause jaundice?

   1. Bacillus cereus
   2. Clostridium perfringens
   3. Vibrio vulnificus
   4. Hepatitis A

   Answer: D. Hepatitis A

   Hepatitis A spreads from infected people. Jaundice (yellow skin or eyes) is a warning sign, and a worker with jaundice must be excluded and reported to the regulatory authority. Review this in the food manager exam guide

3. 3A large pot of beef stew was cooled slowly overnight. Which bacteria is the classic risk?

   1. Anisakis
   2. Norovirus
   3. Hepatitis A
   4. Clostridium perfringens

   Answer: D. Clostridium perfringens

   C. perfringens spores survive cooking and grow fast in large batches of stew, gravy, and meat that cool too slowly. Cool in shallow pans or with ice paddles. Review this in the food manager exam guide

4. 4Cooked rice left at room temperature is the classic source of which illness?

   1. Bacillus cereus
   2. Shigella
   3. Listeria monocytogenes
   4. Scombroid poisoning

   Answer: A. Bacillus cereus

   B. cereus spores survive cooking. In rice left in the danger zone they grow and make a toxin that reheating does not destroy. Review this in the food manager exam guide

5. 5Which pathogen can grow at refrigeration temperatures, making ready-to-eat deli meats a risk?

   1. Clostridium perfringens
   2. Salmonella Typhi
   3. Hepatitis A
   4. Listeria monocytogenes

   Answer: D. Listeria monocytogenes

   Listeria grows slowly even at 41°F or below. That is why ready-to-eat TCS food is date marked and discarded after 7 days. Review this in the food manager exam guide

6. 6Garlic-in-oil left at room temperature is a risk for which pathogen?

   1. Clostridium botulinum
   2. Norovirus
   3. Shigella
   4. Staphylococcus aureus

   Answer: A. Clostridium botulinum

   C. botulinum grows without oxygen and makes a deadly toxin. Keep garlic-in-oil refrigerated, and follow the rules for reduced-oxygen packaging. Review this in the food manager exam guide

7. 7Temperature-abused tuna can cause which illness even after it is cooked?

   1. Anisakiasis
   2. Vibrio infection
   3. Scombroid (histamine) poisoning
   4. Ciguatera

   Answer: C. Scombroid (histamine) poisoning

   Temperature abuse lets histamine form in fish such as tuna and mahi-mahi. Cooking and freezing do not destroy it, so buy from approved suppliers and keep fish cold. Review this in the food manager exam guide

8. 8Which toxin is linked to predatory reef fish such as barracuda and grouper?

   1. Enterotoxin from rice
   2. Ciguatoxin
   3. Botulinum toxin
   4. Histamine

   Answer: B. Ciguatoxin

   Ciguatoxin builds up in reef fish that eat smaller fish. Cooking does not destroy it; the control is buying from approved, reputable suppliers. Review this in the food manager exam guide

9. 9What is the best way to prevent norovirus outbreaks?

   1. Store food at 45°F
   2. Cook all food to 135°F
   3. Freeze fish before serving it raw
   4. Exclude workers with vomiting or diarrhea and keep bare hands off ready-to-eat food

   Answer: D. Exclude workers with vomiting or diarrhea and keep bare hands off ready-to-eat food

   Norovirus spreads from infected people through vomit, feces, and ready-to-eat food. Exclusion, handwashing, and no bare-hand contact are the controls. Review this in the food manager exam guide

Time and temperature

10. 10What is the minimum cooking temperature for ground beef?

    1. 155°F for 17 seconds
    2. 145°F for 15 seconds
    3. 165°F for less than 1 second
    4. 135°F

    Answer: A. 155°F for 17 seconds

    Ground, injected, and mechanically tenderized meats: 155°F for 17 seconds. Whole cuts of beef and pork and seafood: 145°F for 15 seconds. Poultry and stuffing: 165°F. Review this in the food manager exam guide

11. 11Stuffed pork chops must be cooked to at least:

    1. 145°F for 15 seconds
    2. 145°F for 4 minutes
    3. 155°F for 17 seconds
    4. 165°F for less than 1 second

    Answer: D. 165°F for less than 1 second

    Stuffing and anything stuffed with it, including meat, fish, poultry, and pasta, must reach 165°F. Review this in the food manager exam guide

12. 12Raw animal food cooked in a microwave must reach:

    1. 135°F
    2. 165°F, covered and rotated or stirred, then stand covered for 2 minutes
    3. 155°F for 15 seconds
    4. 145°F with no standing time

    Answer: B. 165°F, covered and rotated or stirred, then stand covered for 2 minutes

    Microwaves heat unevenly, so raw animal food must reach 165°F in all parts, be covered and rotated or stirred, and stand covered for 2 minutes. Review this in the food manager exam guide

13. 13Cooked TCS food must cool from 135°F to 41°F or below within a total of:

    1. 2 hours
    2. 4 hours
    3. 8 hours, reaching 70°F within the first 4 hours
    4. 6 hours, reaching 70°F within the first 2 hours

    Answer: D. 6 hours, reaching 70°F within the first 2 hours

    Stage one: 135°F to 70°F within 2 hours. Stage two: 70°F to 41°F within the next 4. If food misses the first stage, reheat it and start over, or throw it out. Review this in the food manager exam guide

14. 14Food reheated for hot holding must reach 165°F for 15 seconds within:

    1. 30 minutes
    2. 4 hours
    3. 6 hours
    4. 2 hours

    Answer: D. 2 hours

    Reheat quickly: 165°F for 15 seconds within 2 hours, then hold at 135°F or above. Review this in the food manager exam guide

15. 15Under time as a public health control, hot food held without temperature control must be served or discarded within:

    1. 4 hours
    2. 6 hours
    3. 8 hours
    4. 2 hours

    Answer: A. 4 hours

    Four hours from when it leaves temperature control, labeled with the discard time. Cold food can go 6 hours if it starts at 41°F or below and never goes above 70°F. Review this in the food manager exam guide

16. 16Ready-to-eat TCS food prepared in-house and held at 41°F can be kept for up to:

    1. 3 days
    2. 14 days
    3. 7 days, counting the day it was made as day 1
    4. 30 days

    Answer: C. 7 days, counting the day it was made as day 1

    Date mark ready-to-eat TCS food held longer than 24 hours: 7 days at 41°F or below, with the day of preparation counted as day 1. Review this in the food manager exam guide

17. 17Fish served raw must be frozen to kill parasites. Which method is accepted?

    1. −10°F for 1 hour
    2. 32°F for 48 hours
    3. −4°F or below for 7 days
    4. 0°F for 24 hours

    Answer: C. −4°F or below for 7 days

    The Food Code accepts −4°F or below for 7 days, or −31°F until solid and then held at −31°F for 15 hours or −4°F for 24 hours. Keep the records for 90 days. Review this in the food manager exam guide

18. 18Thermometers used to check the temperature of food must be accurate to within:

    1. ±0.5°F
    2. ±5°F
    3. ±2°F
    4. ±10°F

    Answer: C. ±2°F

    Food thermometers must be accurate to ±2°F (±1°C). Calibrate them regularly, for example with the ice-point method. Review this in the food manager exam guide

19. 19Fruits and vegetables cooked for hot holding must reach at least:

    1. 155°F
    2. 145°F
    3. 135°F
    4. 165°F

    Answer: C. 135°F

    Plant foods cooked for hot holding need 135°F. Animal foods have higher minimums. Review this in the food manager exam guide

Receiving and storage

20. 20Cold TCS food such as raw chicken should be received at:

    1. 50°F or lower
    2. 32°F or lower
    3. 45°F or lower
    4. 41°F or lower

    Answer: D. 41°F or lower

    Receive cold TCS food at 41°F or lower. Milk and shell eggs have their own receiving rules. Review this in the food manager exam guide

21. 21How long must shellstock identification tags be kept?

    1. 30 days after delivery
    2. 90 days from the date the container is emptied
    3. 7 days
    4. 1 year after delivery

    Answer: B. 90 days from the date the container is emptied

    Keep shellstock tags on file for 90 days from the date the last shellfish in the container is sold or served, so an outbreak can be traced. Review this in the food manager exam guide

22. 22In a walk-in cooler, which item belongs on the bottom shelf?

    1. Raw poultry
    2. Raw whole fish
    3. Raw ground beef
    4. Ready-to-eat salads

    Answer: A. Raw poultry

    Store by minimum cooking temperature: ready-to-eat on top, then seafood, whole cuts, ground meat, and poultry (165°F) on the bottom. Review this in the food manager exam guide

23. 23Which delivery should you reject?

    1. Canned goods with intact seals and no dents
    2. Frozen fish with large ice crystals and water stains on the box
    3. Fresh chicken at 38°F
    4. Clean, uncracked shell eggs in a 44°F truck

    Answer: B. Frozen fish with large ice crystals and water stains on the box

    Large ice crystals, frozen liquid, and water stains are signs the food thawed and refroze. Review this in the food manager exam guide

24. 24Which of these is NOT an approved source of food for a restaurant?

    1. A licensed commercial bakery
    2. Vegetables canned in an employee’s home kitchen
    3. A certified shellfish dealer
    4. A supplier inspected by a regulatory authority

    Answer: B. Vegetables canned in an employee’s home kitchen

    Food must come from sources that comply with the law. Food prepared in a private home cannot be used or served in a food establishment. Review this in the food manager exam guide

Employee health

25. 25Which diagnoses must food employees report to the person in charge?

    1. Only illnesses a customer complains about
    2. Influenza, strep throat, and the common cold
    3. Only hepatitis A and norovirus
    4. Norovirus, hepatitis A, Shigella, Shiga toxin-producing E. coli, Salmonella Typhi, and nontyphoidal Salmonella

    Answer: D. Norovirus, hepatitis A, Shigella, Shiga toxin-producing E. coli, Salmonella Typhi, and nontyphoidal Salmonella

    These are the Food Code’s “Big 6.” Employees must report a diagnosis of any of them, and the person in charge acts on it. Review this in the food manager exam guide

26. 26A food employee has jaundice. What must the manager do?

    1. Exclude the worker and notify the regulatory authority
    2. Move the worker to washing dishes
    3. Let the worker continue wearing gloves
    4. Nothing unless a customer gets sick

    Answer: A. Exclude the worker and notify the regulatory authority

    Jaundice can signal hepatitis A. Exclude the worker from the operation and report it to the regulatory authority. Review this in the food manager exam guide

27. 27A cook had vomiting and diarrhea but no diagnosis. When can the cook return to work?

    1. Only after 14 days
    2. The next shift, wearing gloves
    3. After 2 hours without symptoms
    4. After being free of symptoms for at least 24 hours

    Answer: D. After being free of symptoms for at least 24 hours

    A worker excluded for vomiting or diarrhea can return after at least 24 hours without symptoms, or with medical documentation. Review this in the food manager exam guide

28. 28A server at a restaurant that does not serve a highly susceptible population has a sore throat with fever. The manager should:

    1. Exclude the server from the operation
    2. Restrict the server from working with or around food
    3. Have the server wear a mask
    4. Let the server work normally

    Answer: B. Restrict the server from working with or around food

    Sore throat with fever calls for restriction. At operations serving a highly susceptible population, such as a hospital or nursing home, the worker is excluded instead. Review this in the food manager exam guide

29. 29A cook has an infected cut on one hand. What is required before handling food?

    1. Nothing if the cut is small
    2. Hand sanitizer on the cut
    3. An impermeable cover, such as a bandage or finger cot, with a single-use glove over it
    4. A cloth wrap

    Answer: C. An impermeable cover, such as a bandage or finger cot, with a single-use glove over it

    Infected wounds on the hands carry Staphylococcus aureus. Cover with an impermeable bandage or finger cot and wear a single-use glove over it. Review this in the food manager exam guide

30. 30Bare-hand contact with ready-to-eat food is:

    1. Allowed if hands were washed in the last hour
    2. Allowed for garnishes
    3. Not allowed, unless the regulatory authority approves an alternative procedure
    4. Allowed after using hand sanitizer

    Answer: C. Not allowed, unless the regulatory authority approves an alternative procedure

    Use gloves, tongs, deli tissue, or other utensils. Bare-hand contact is allowed only under an alternative procedure approved in advance. Review this in the food manager exam guide

HACCP and management

31. 31What is the first principle of HACCP?

    1. Establish record keeping
    2. Conduct a hazard analysis
    3. Identify corrective actions
    4. Establish critical limits

    Answer: B. Conduct a hazard analysis

    The seven principles in order: hazard analysis, critical control points, critical limits, monitoring, corrective actions, verification, and record keeping. Review this in the food manager exam guide

32. 32In a HACCP plan, “cook chicken to 165°F for less than 1 second” is an example of a:

    1. Hazard analysis
    2. Verification step
    3. Corrective action
    4. Critical limit

    Answer: D. Critical limit

    A critical limit is the minimum or maximum value that must be met at a critical control point, here the cooking step. Review this in the food manager exam guide

33. 33Chicken reached only 150°F, so the cook kept cooking it to 165°F. In HACCP terms, that is:

    1. A critical control point
    2. A corrective action
    3. A hazard analysis
    4. Verification

    Answer: B. A corrective action

    A corrective action is what you do when a critical limit is not met. Recording it is part of the plan. Review this in the food manager exam guide

34. 34Which activity requires a variance from the regulatory authority?

    1. Thawing chicken under cold running water
    2. Cooking burgers to order
    3. Cooling soup in an ice-water bath
    4. Smoking food to preserve it

    Answer: D. Smoking food to preserve it

    Smoking or curing food to preserve it, adding ingredients to make food shelf-stable, sprouting seeds, and live shellfish display tanks all need a variance, and usually a HACCP plan. Review this in the food manager exam guide

35. 35Which is one of the FDA’s five common risk factors for foodborne illness?

    1. Serving food on paper plates
    2. Using a digital point-of-sale system
    3. Offering a children’s menu
    4. Holding food at incorrect temperatures

    Answer: D. Holding food at incorrect temperatures

    The five risk factors: food from unsafe sources, inadequate cooking, improper holding temperatures, contaminated equipment, and poor personal hygiene. Review this in the food manager exam guide

36. 36Active managerial control means:

    1. Letting each cook decide how to handle food safety
    2. Waiting for the inspector to point out violations
    3. Building food safety into daily routines: procedures, training, monitoring, and correction
    4. Posting a food safety poster once a year

    Answer: C. Building food safety into daily routines: procedures, training, monitoring, and correction

    Managers control the risk factors proactively, with written procedures, training, monitoring, and corrective action, rather than reacting to inspections. Review this in the food manager exam guide

37. 37When must a person in charge be present?

    1. Only during inspections
    2. During all hours of operation
    3. Only when the owner is away
    4. Only during the lunch rush

    Answer: B. During all hours of operation

    The Food Code requires the license holder to be the person in charge or designate one, and a person in charge must be present whenever the operation is open. Review this in the food manager exam guide

38. 38A restaurant serves rare burgers and raw oysters. What must its menu include?

    1. Nothing, if the customer orders it that way
    2. A signed waiver from each customer
    3. A doctor’s approval
    4. A consumer advisory with a disclosure and a reminder

    Answer: D. A consumer advisory with a disclosure and a reminder

    Raw or undercooked animal foods require a consumer advisory: a disclosure of which items are raw or undercooked and a reminder of the risk. Review this in the food manager exam guide

Cleaning and facilities

39. 39In a three-compartment sink, the wash water must be at least:

    1. 110°F
    2. 75°F
    3. 180°F
    4. 165°F

    Answer: A. 110°F

    Wash water must be at least 110°F, or the temperature on the detergent label. Review this in the food manager exam guide

40. 40To sanitize by hot-water immersion, the water must be at least:

    1. 160°F, for 7 seconds
    2. 212°F, for 1 second
    3. 140°F, for 10 seconds
    4. 171°F, for 30 seconds

    Answer: D. 171°F, for 30 seconds

    Manual hot-water sanitizing requires 171°F for at least 30 seconds. Review this in the food manager exam guide

41. 41On most high-temperature dishwashers, the final sanitizing rinse must be at least:

    1. 212°F
    2. 140°F
    3. 180°F
    4. 110°F

    Answer: C. 180°F

    Most high-temperature machines need a 180°F final rinse; single-temperature, stationary-rack machines need 165°F. Review this in the food manager exam guide

42. 42Why must chemical sanitizer be checked with a test kit?

    1. It changes the color of food
    2. Too weak won’t sanitize, and too strong can be unsafe and leave residue
    3. Only dishwashers need testing
    4. It shows the water temperature

    Answer: B. Too weak won’t sanitize, and too strong can be unsafe and leave residue

    Concentration matters both ways. Test with the kit for your sanitizer (chlorine, quat, or iodine) and adjust to the label range. Review this in the food manager exam guide

43. 43What is the most reliable way to prevent backflow into the drinking water supply?

    1. A floor drain
    2. A garden-hose splitter
    3. An air gap
    4. A hose left in a sink of water

    Answer: C. An air gap

    An air gap is at least twice the diameter of the water inlet, and never less than 1 inch, between the outlet and the flood rim. Review this in the food manager exam guide

44. 44Cleaning chemicals should be stored:

    1. In labeled containers, below and away from food, equipment, and single-use items
    2. On the top shelf above dry goods
    3. Next to single-use cups for convenience
    4. In empty food containers, if relabeled

    Answer: A. In labeled containers, below and away from food, equipment, and single-use items

    Keep chemicals in their labeled containers and store them where a spill can’t reach food, equipment, or single-use items. Review this in the food manager exam guide

Pests and crises

45. 45Who should apply pesticides in a food establishment?

    1. A licensed pest control operator
    2. The manager, with a store-bought spray
    3. The newest employee
    4. Any cook, after closing

    Answer: A. A licensed pest control operator

    Integrated pest management keeps pests out, and a licensed pest control operator applies any pesticides. Review this in the food manager exam guide

46. 46Which of these is an imminent health hazard that means stopping service and contacting the regulatory authority?

    1. A late produce delivery
    2. Sewage backing up into the kitchen
    3. A typo on the menu
    4. A burned-out light in the dining room

    Answer: B. Sewage backing up into the kitchen

    Sewage backups, fires, floods, long water or power outages, and gross unsanitary events are imminent health hazards. Review this in the food manager exam guide

47. 47Which signs point to cockroaches?

    1. Gnaw marks and grease rub marks along walls
    2. Small feathers in dry storage
    3. A strong oily odor and droppings like grains of black pepper
    4. Webs in the dining room only

    Answer: C. A strong oily odor and droppings like grains of black pepper

    Cockroaches leave a strong oily odor, pepper-like droppings, and capsule-shaped egg cases. Gnaw marks and rub marks point to rodents. Review this in the food manager exam guide

How the real manager exam works

The ServSafe Manager exam has 90 multiple-choice questions, 80 of them scored, with a two-hour limit and a 70% passing score. It is proctored, in person or online. Other accredited exams, such as NRFSP and StateFoodSafety, follow the same Food Code material with their own formats. Our cost comparison lists what each one charges. Our Food Manager Certification: How to Pass the Exam explains which exams your health department accepts, what each topic covers, and a two-week study plan.

ServSafe is a trademark of the National Restaurant Association. FoodHandlerGear is not affiliated with or endorsed by it, and these are our own practice questions, not real exam questions.

Frequently Asked Questions

Is this the real ServSafe Manager exam?

No. These are our own practice questions, written from the FDA Food Code that the ServSafe Manager exam and other accredited manager exams are built on. The real exam is proctored and has 90 questions.

How is the manager exam different from the food handler test?

The manager exam is longer and goes deeper. Besides the temperatures and hygiene rules on the food handler test, it covers HACCP, the Big 6 illnesses and when to exclude a worker, receiving and storage, sanitizing equipment, pest control, and responding to a crisis.