Food Handler Test Questions and Answers

Quick answer: This page lists every question from our free food handler practice test, each with the correct answer and a plain-language explanation. Take the interactive test first, then study the topics you missed here and retake it. Aim for 70% or better, the pass mark most exams use, and learn the reasons rather than memorizing answers.

These are all 98 questions from our free food handler practice test, each with the correct answer and the reason behind it. They cover the FDA Food Code topics that nearly every U.S. food handler exam tests: time and temperature control, personal hygiene, cross-contamination, cleaning and sanitizing, thermometers, and pests and HACCP basics.

Time and temperature

24 questions. Rather be quizzed on them? Take the temperature quiz.

1. 1What is the temperature danger zone, where bacteria multiply fastest?

   1. 41°F to 135°F
   2. 32°F to 100°F
   3. 70°F to 165°F
   4. 0°F to 41°F

   Answer: A. 41°F to 135°F

   The FDA Food Code danger zone runs from 41°F to 135°F. Keep cold food at 41°F or below and hot food at 135°F or above. Review this in the exam glossary

2. 2Cooked food must be cooled from 135°F to 70°F within how long?

   1. 6 hours
   2. 2 hours
   3. 4 hours
   4. 30 minutes

   Answer: B. 2 hours

   Stage one is 135°F to 70°F within 2 hours; stage two is 70°F to 41°F within the next 4 hours, for 6 hours total. Shallow pans, ice baths, and ice paddles speed it up. Review this in the exam glossary

3. 3Food being reheated for hot holding must reach what internal temperature?

   1. 145°F
   2. 135°F
   3. 155°F
   4. 165°F

   Answer: D. 165°F

   Reheat to 165°F, rapidly (within 2 hours), and only once. Then hold it at 135°F or above. Review this in the exam glossary

4. 4Hot-held food must stay at or above:

   1. 135°F
   2. 145°F
   3. 120°F
   4. 165°F

   Answer: A. 135°F

   Hot holding is 135°F or above. The three numbers to memorize together: reheat to 165°F, hot-hold at 135°F+, cold-hold at 41°F or below. Review this in the exam glossary

5. 5Cold-held TCS food must stay at or below:

   1. 41°F
   2. 45°F
   3. 32°F
   4. 50°F

   Answer: A. 41°F

   Cold holding is 41°F or below. That is the bottom of the danger zone, not the freezing point. Review this in the exam glossary

6. 6The minimum internal cooking temperature for poultry (chicken, turkey, duck) is:

   1. 135°F
   2. 165°F
   3. 145°F
   4. 155°F

   Answer: B. 165°F

   Poultry, stuffed foods, and reheated leftovers: 165°F. Ground meats: 155°F. Whole cuts of beef, pork, and seafood: 145°F. Verify with a probe thermometer, never by color. Review this in the thermometer guide

7. 7Ground beef must be cooked to a minimum internal temperature of:

   1. 165°F
   2. 155°F
   3. 135°F
   4. 145°F

   Answer: B. 155°F

   Grinding spreads surface bacteria through the meat, so ground meats need 155°F, higher than the 145°F for whole cuts. Review this in the thermometer guide

8. 8Which of these is a TCS food that needs time and temperature control?

   1. A loaf of bread
   2. Uncooked dry rice
   3. Cut cantaloupe
   4. A whole, uncut watermelon

   Answer: C. Cut cantaloupe

   Cut melons, cooked rice and pasta, dairy, eggs, meat, poultry, seafood, and sprouts are all TCS foods. Whole uncut melons and dry grains are not. Review this in the exam glossary

9. 9Which thawing method is NOT acceptable?

   1. As part of the cooking process
   2. On the counter at room temperature
   3. Under cold running water at 70°F or below
   4. In the refrigerator

   Answer: B. On the counter at room temperature

   The four approved methods are refrigerator, cold running water (70°F or below), microwave if cooked immediately, and cooking from frozen. Counter thawing leaves the outside in the danger zone for hours. Review this in the exam glossary

10. 10What is the commonly taught maximum total time TCS food may spend in the danger zone before it must be discarded?

    1. 8 hours
    2. 2 hours
    3. 6 hours
    4. 4 hours

    Answer: D. 4 hours

    The limit is 4 hours cumulative across the life of the food, and less is always better. Most exams also expect you to know food left out longer than that gets thrown away, not reheated. Review this in the exam glossary

11. 11Whole cuts of beef, pork, lamb, and veal (steaks, chops, roasts) must reach a minimum internal temperature of:

    1. 155°F
    2. 165°F
    3. 135°F
    4. 145°F

    Answer: D. 145°F

    Whole cuts are 145°F because bacteria live on the surface, which cooks first. Grinding or injecting moves them inside, which is why ground meats need 155°F. Review this in the one-page cheat sheet

12. 12Fish and other seafood must be cooked to at least:

    1. 165°F
    2. 155°F
    3. 135°F
    4. 145°F

    Answer: D. 145°F

    Seafood, whole cuts of meat, and eggs cooked for immediate service all share the 145°F minimum. Review this in the one-page cheat sheet

13. 13Eggs that will be held for later service, such as on a buffet, must be cooked to:

    1. 155°F
    2. 165°F
    3. 135°F
    4. 145°F

    Answer: A. 155°F

    Eggs cooked to order for immediate service need 145°F. Eggs cooked ahead and held join the 155°F group with ground meats. Review this in the one-page cheat sheet

14. 14Stuffing, stuffed pasta, and stuffed meat or poultry must reach:

    1. 145°F
    2. 155°F
    3. 165°F
    4. 135°F

    Answer: C. 165°F

    Anything stuffed, and any dish that combines raw and cooked ingredients, cooks to 165°F, the same as poultry. Review this in the one-page cheat sheet

15. 15Fruits, vegetables, grains, and legumes that will be hot-held must be heated to at least:

    1. 145°F
    2. 165°F
    3. 155°F
    4. 135°F

    Answer: D. 135°F

    Plant foods that will sit in hot holding only need to reach the hot-holding temperature itself, 135°F. Review this in the one-page cheat sheet

16. 16Raw animal food cooked in a microwave must reach what temperature, then stand covered for two minutes?

    1. 165°F
    2. 135°F
    3. 155°F
    4. 145°F

    Answer: A. 165°F

    Microwaves heat unevenly, so the rule is 165°F throughout, covered, rotated or stirred partway, with a two-minute stand so the temperature evens out. Review this in the one-page cheat sheet

17. 17What is the total maximum time allowed to cool cooked food from 135°F down to 41°F?

    1. 8 hours
    2. 4 hours
    3. 6 hours
    4. 2 hours

    Answer: C. 6 hours

    Two hours for the first stage (135°F to 70°F) plus four hours for the second (70°F to 41°F). If the first stage runs long, you must reheat to 165°F and start over, or throw the food out. Review this in the one-page cheat sheet

18. 18Tuna salad made from ingredients that were at room temperature must be cooled to 41°F or below within:

    1. 4 hours
    2. 24 hours
    3. 6 hours
    4. 2 hours

    Answer: A. 4 hours

    Food prepared from room-temperature ingredients skips the first stage and must reach 41°F within 4 hours of preparation. Review this in the one-page cheat sheet

19. 19Commercially processed, packaged ready-to-eat food (such as canned chili) that is reheated for hot holding must reach at least:

    1. 135°F
    2. 165°F
    3. 145°F
    4. 155°F

    Answer: A. 135°F

    Food that was cooked and sealed by a processor only needs to reach 135°F. Food cooked in your kitchen, cooled, and reheated needs 165°F. Review this in the one-page cheat sheet

20. 20Hot TCS food held using time rather than temperature as the control must be discarded after:

    1. 6 hours
    2. 2 hours
    3. 4 hours
    4. 8 hours

    Answer: C. 4 hours

    Time as a public health control lets you hold food without temperature control for up to 4 hours if it started at the right temperature and is labeled with the discard time. Then it is thrown away, never reheated or chilled. Review this in the exam glossary

21. 21A delivery of raw chicken arrives at 50°F. You should:

    1. Accept it and chill it immediately
    2. Accept it if it will be cooked within the hour
    3. Accept it as long as the truck was refrigerated
    4. Reject it; cold TCS food must arrive at 41°F or below

    Answer: D. Reject it; cold TCS food must arrive at 41°F or below

    Check temperatures at receiving. Cold TCS food must be 41°F or below, hot food 135°F or above, and frozen food frozen solid. Anything else goes back on the truck. Review this in the one-page cheat sheet

22. 22Shellstock identification tags for live oysters, clams, and mussels must be kept on file for:

    1. 90 days after the last shellfish from that container is sold
    2. 30 days
    3. 7 days
    4. Until the container is empty

    Answer: A. 90 days after the last shellfish from that container is sold

    Shellfish tags trace an outbreak back to the harvest area. Keep the tag with the container until it is empty, then file it for 90 days. Review this in the exam glossary

23. 23Bacteria multiply fastest in which part of the danger zone?

    1. 32°F to 41°F
    2. 125°F to 135°F
    3. Roughly 70°F to 125°F
    4. 41°F to 50°F

    Answer: C. Roughly 70°F to 125°F

    The whole 41°F to 135°F range is dangerous, but growth is fastest around room and body temperature, which is why counter-cooling and slow thawing are so risky. Review this in the exam glossary

24. 24Where should the air thermometer in a walk-in refrigerator be placed?

    1. On the floor
    2. In the warmest part of the unit, usually near the door
    3. Outside the door
    4. In the coldest part, near the fan

    Answer: B. In the warmest part of the unit, usually near the door

    You want to know the warmest temperature any food is exposed to, so the thermometer goes where it is warmest. Check it at the start of every shift. Review this in the exam glossary

Personal hygiene

17 questions. Rather be quizzed on them? Take the hygiene quiz.

25. 25A proper handwash, start to finish, should take at least:

    1. 20 seconds
    2. 60 seconds
    3. 5 seconds
    4. 10 seconds

    Answer: A. 20 seconds

    Wet, soap, scrub for 10 to 15 seconds, rinse, and dry with a single-use towel: at least 20 seconds in total. Hand sanitizer is never a substitute for washing in food service. Review this in the exam glossary

26. 26A cook reports vomiting this morning. What should the manager do?

    1. Nothing, vomiting is not a reportable symptom
    2. Exclude the cook from the operation until they are cleared to return
    3. Move the cook to the dish pit
    4. Let the cook work but keep them away from food

    Answer: B. Exclude the cook from the operation until they are cleared to return

    Vomiting, diarrhea, jaundice, or a diagnosed foodborne illness mean exclusion: the worker stays out of the facility entirely. Milder problems such as a sore throat with fever, or an infected cut that cannot be covered, may only require restriction from food and clean equipment. Review this in the exam glossary

27. 27Do single-use gloves replace handwashing?

    1. No. Wash before putting gloves on and again after taking them off
    2. Only if the gloves are nitrile
    3. Yes, as long as the gloves are new
    4. Yes, if you are only handling ready-to-eat food

    Answer: A. No. Wash before putting gloves on and again after taking them off

    Gloves are a barrier, not a substitute. Wash before gloving, wash after removing, and change gloves whenever you would otherwise wash your hands. Review this in the disposable gloves guide

28. 28Single-use gloves must be changed in all of these situations EXCEPT:

    1. When switching from raw meat to ready-to-eat food
    2. When they tear
    3. After every 30 minutes of continuous use
    4. After touching your face or hair

    Answer: C. After every 30 minutes of continuous use

    Change gloves when torn, when switching tasks, after handling raw meat, after touching your face, and at least every four hours of continuous use on one task. There is no 30-minute rule. Review this in the disposable gloves guide

29. 29Which jewelry is generally allowed on a food handler’s hands and arms while preparing food?

    1. A plain band ring only
    2. A watch
    3. Bracelets
    4. Rings with stones

    Answer: A. A plain band ring only

    Jewelry traps soil and can fall into food. Most codes allow only a plain band; check your local rules and your employer’s policy. Review this in the exam glossary

30. 30You cut your finger during prep. What should you do before continuing?

    1. Cover the wound with a bandage and wear a glove over it
    2. Apply hand sanitizer and continue
    3. Wrap it in a paper towel
    4. Rinse it and keep working

    Answer: A. Cover the wound with a bandage and wear a glove over it

    Cover cuts with a clean bandage plus a single-use glove (or a finger cot). Never work with an uncovered wound. Review this in the exam glossary

31. 31Bare-hand contact with ready-to-eat food is:

    1. Fine if your hands were washed within the hour
    2. Allowed for garnishes only
    3. Not allowed. Use gloves, tongs, deli paper, or other utensils
    4. Allowed if the food will be served right away

    Answer: C. Not allowed. Use gloves, tongs, deli paper, or other utensils

    Ready-to-eat food will not be cooked again, so anything on your hands goes straight to the customer. Use a barrier every time. Review this in the disposable gloves guide

32. 32A handwashing sink may be used for:

    1. Handwashing and filling sanitizer buckets
    2. Handwashing only, never for rinsing produce, dumping mop water, or thawing food
    3. Handwashing and rinsing produce
    4. Anything, as long as it is cleaned afterward

    Answer: B. Handwashing only, never for rinsing produce, dumping mop water, or thawing food

    Handwashing sinks must stay accessible and used for nothing else. Using one for food or waste contaminates the sink and discourages washing. Review this in the exam glossary

33. 33Water at a handwashing sink must reach at least:

    1. 100°F
    2. 140°F
    3. 171°F
    4. 70°F

    Answer: A. 100°F

    A handwashing station needs hot water of at least 100°F, soap, a way to dry hands, a garbage container, and signage. Review this in the exam glossary

34. 34Which diagnosis must a food handler report to the manager, who must then notify the regulatory authority?

    1. A common cold
    2. Norovirus
    3. A sprained wrist
    4. Seasonal allergies

    Answer: B. Norovirus

    The reportable illnesses are norovirus, hepatitis A, Shigella, Shiga toxin-producing E. coli, Salmonella Typhi, and nontyphoidal Salmonella. A diagnosed worker is excluded until cleared. Review this in the exam glossary

35. 35A worker excluded for vomiting may return to work after being symptom-free for at least:

    1. 4 hours
    2. 48 hours
    3. 24 hours
    4. 7 days

    Answer: C. 24 hours

    Vomiting and diarrhea mean exclusion until the worker has been symptom-free for 24 hours, or a medical release says otherwise. Review this in the exam glossary

36. 36A cook with a sore throat and fever works in a nursing home kitchen. The manager should:

    1. Exclude them; when serving a highly susceptible population that symptom means exclusion
    2. Do nothing; a sore throat is not reportable
    3. Restrict them to the dish pit
    4. Let them work in gloves

    Answer: A. Exclude them; when serving a highly susceptible population that symptom means exclusion

    In an ordinary restaurant a sore throat with fever means restriction. Where the customers are highly susceptible (hospitals, nursing homes, day care), it means exclusion. Review this in the exam glossary

37. 37A food handler may drink at their station only from:

    1. Any container, as long as it is not alcohol
    2. An open cup kept below the counter
    3. Nothing; drinks are never allowed in a kitchen
    4. A covered container handled so it cannot contaminate hands, food, or surfaces

    Answer: D. A covered container handled so it cannot contaminate hands, food, or surfaces

    Closed beverage containers are allowed if they are handled carefully. Eating, chewing gum, and smoking belong in designated areas only. Review this in the exam glossary

38. 38Before leaving the kitchen to use the restroom, a food handler should:

    1. Put on gloves
    2. Keep the apron on so it stays clean
    3. Remove their apron and wash hands when they return
    4. Wash hands only if they touched anything

    Answer: C. Remove their apron and wash hands when they return

    Aprons pick up whatever they touch. Take it off before leaving the prep area, and wash your hands at a handwashing sink before going back to work. Review this in the exam glossary

39. 39Fingernails of a food handler must be:

    1. Polished to seal them
    2. Long enough to open packaging
    3. Any length if washed often
    4. Short, clean, and free of polish or false nails unless single-use gloves are worn

    Answer: D. Short, clean, and free of polish or false nails unless single-use gloves are worn

    Long nails, polish, and false nails harbor soil and can chip into food. If you wear them, you must wear intact single-use gloves over them. Review this in the exam glossary

40. 40Which task may be done with bare hands?

    1. Adding a lemon wedge to a drink
    2. Plating a salad
    3. Portioning raw chicken that will be cooked to 165°F
    4. Slicing bread for service

    Answer: C. Portioning raw chicken that will be cooked to 165°F

    The bare-hand rule protects ready-to-eat food. Raw animal food that will be fully cooked can be handled bare-handed (though gloves are still smart); anything served without further cooking cannot. Review this in the disposable gloves guide

41. 41Hair restraints such as hats, hair nets, and beard covers are:

    1. Only required in bakeries
    2. Required for food employees preparing food
    3. Only required for cooks, not servers who plate food
    4. Optional if hair is short

    Answer: B. Required for food employees preparing food

    Hair restraints keep hair out of food and keep workers from touching their hair. They are required for anyone working with exposed food, clean equipment, or utensils. Review this in the exam glossary

Cross-contamination

18 questions. Rather be quizzed on them? Take the cross-contamination quiz.

42. 42In a walk-in refrigerator, which item belongs on the BOTTOM shelf?

    1. Ready-to-eat salads
    2. Whole cuts of beef
    3. Raw fish
    4. Raw chicken

    Answer: D. Raw chicken

    Store by minimum cooking temperature: ready-to-eat on top, then seafood, whole cuts of beef and pork, ground meats, and raw poultry on the bottom so nothing drips onto food that cooks at a lower temperature. Review this in the FIFO and date-marking guide

43. 43In the standard color-coded cutting board system, which color is for raw poultry?

    1. Red
    2. Yellow
    3. Blue
    4. Green

    Answer: B. Yellow

    Red is raw meat, blue is raw fish and seafood, yellow is raw poultry, green is produce, white is dairy and bakery, brown is cooked meats. Follow your workplace chart if it differs. Review this in the color-coded cutting boards guide

44. 44What is allergen cross-contact?

    1. Storing food above the floor
    2. Transfer of bacteria from raw meat to produce
    3. Transfer of an allergen from one food or surface to another
    4. Using the same towel on two surfaces

    Answer: C. Transfer of an allergen from one food or surface to another

    Cross-contact is the allergen version of cross-contamination. Even a trace amount from a shared utensil or fryer can cause a reaction, and cooking does not remove allergens. Review this in the exam glossary

45. 45Which of these is NOT one of the nine major food allergens recognized in the U.S.?

    1. Sesame
    2. Shellfish
    3. Corn
    4. Peanuts

    Answer: C. Corn

    The nine: milk, eggs, fish, crustacean shellfish, tree nuts, peanuts, wheat, soybeans, and sesame (added in 2023). When a customer reports an allergy, get the manager. Review this in the exam glossary

46. 46FIFO means:

    1. Use the oldest stock first and put new deliveries behind existing stock
    2. Freeze it in, fry it out
    3. Use the newest stock first
    4. First in, frozen out

    Answer: A. Use the oldest stock first and put new deliveries behind existing stock

    First In, First Out. Date every item, rotate on delivery day, and pull the earliest date first. Review this in the FIFO and date-marking guide

47. 47Ready-to-eat TCS food prepared in-house and held at 41°F or below must be used or discarded within:

    1. 7 days, counting the day it was made as day one
    2. 24 hours
    3. 10 days
    4. 3 days

    Answer: A. 7 days, counting the day it was made as day one

    Date-mark anything held longer than 24 hours and discard by day 7, with the prep day counting as day one. Review this in the FIFO and date-marking guide

48. 48Raw ground beef should be stored:

    1. On the top shelf
    2. Below whole cuts of beef and above raw poultry
    3. Above ready-to-eat food
    4. Above seafood

    Answer: B. Below whole cuts of beef and above raw poultry

    Order the refrigerator by final cooking temperature: ready-to-eat, seafood, whole cuts (145°F), ground meats (155°F), poultry (165°F) at the bottom. Review this in the FIFO and date-marking guide

49. 49Sanitizer buckets and other chemicals should be stored:

    1. Next to the handwashing sink
    2. On the top shelf above the prep table
    3. Anywhere with a lid
    4. Away from and below food and food-contact surfaces, clearly labeled

    Answer: D. Away from and below food and food-contact surfaces, clearly labeled

    Chemicals stored above food can drip or spill into it. Keep them separate, below food, and in labeled containers. Review this in the surface sanitizers guide

50. 50Ready-to-eat TCS food that was date-marked, frozen on day 3, and thawed later must be used within:

    1. A fresh 7 days
    2. The 4 days left of its original 7-day limit
    3. 10 days
    4. 24 hours

    Answer: B. The 4 days left of its original 7-day limit

    Freezing pauses the clock but does not reset it. The days before freezing still count toward the 7-day total. Review this in the FIFO and date-marking guide

51. 51A customer with a shellfish allergy orders fries. What matters most?

    1. Whether the fries are salted
    2. Whether the fries contain gluten
    3. Whether the fries were cooked in oil also used for shrimp
    4. Nothing; fries are always safe

    Answer: C. Whether the fries were cooked in oil also used for shrimp

    Shared fryer oil, utensils, and surfaces carry allergens between foods. That is cross-contact, and it can cause a reaction from a trace amount. Review this in the exam glossary

52. 52Which of these is one of the nine major food allergens?

    1. Corn
    2. Wheat
    3. Rice
    4. Oats

    Answer: B. Wheat

    Milk, eggs, fish, crustacean shellfish, tree nuts, peanuts, wheat, soybeans, and sesame. Allergens must be identified on request, and cross-contact must be prevented. Review this in the one-page cheat sheet

53. 53Dry goods such as flour and rice should be stored:

    1. Under the sewer line where it is cool
    2. At least 6 inches off the floor, away from walls, in a clean dry area
    3. Next to the cleaning chemicals
    4. On the floor in their original bags

    Answer: B. At least 6 inches off the floor, away from walls, in a clean dry area

    Storing food off the floor keeps it away from pests, spills, and mop water, and makes cleaning underneath possible. Review this in the one-page cheat sheet

54. 54Whole produce must be washed:

    1. Never; washing spreads bacteria
    2. Only if it looks dirty
    3. Before it is cut, combined with other ingredients, or served
    4. After it is cut, so the pieces get clean

    Answer: C. Before it is cut, combined with other ingredients, or served

    Cutting drives surface contamination into the flesh, so wash first, under running water, and never with detergent. Review this in the exam glossary

55. 55Ice that was used to keep food cold on a display:

    1. Is fine for drinks if the food was packaged
    2. Can be used in drinks once it is rinsed
    3. May not be used as an ingredient or in drinks
    4. Can be used for cooking

    Answer: C. May not be used as an ingredient or in drinks

    Ice used as a coolant is considered contaminated. Ice for consumption must come from a clean scoop and a dedicated bin. Review this in the exam glossary

56. 56Between uses, wet wiping cloths should be kept:

    1. On the counter where they are handy
    2. In a sanitizer solution at the correct concentration
    3. Tucked into an apron string
    4. In a bucket of plain water

    Answer: B. In a sanitizer solution at the correct concentration

    A damp cloth left out grows bacteria and spreads them to every surface it touches. Store in-use cloths in sanitizer and change the solution when it weakens. Review this in the sanitizer test strips guide

57. 57If one prep table must be used for both raw chicken and salad, you should:

    1. Prep both at the same time to save steps
    2. Prep the chicken first, then the salad
    3. Prep the salad first, or clean and sanitize the table between tasks
    4. Wipe the table with a dry towel between them

    Answer: C. Prep the salad first, or clean and sanitize the table between tasks

    Separate by time when you cannot separate by space: ready-to-eat first, then raw, or a full clean and sanitize in between. Review this in the exam glossary

58. 58An open bag of flour taken from a bulk container and put in a bin must be labeled with:

    1. The common name of the food
    2. The supplier phone number
    3. The price
    4. Nothing; everyone knows what flour looks like

    Answer: A. The common name of the food

    Food removed from its original container must be labeled with its common name, unless it is unmistakable. Sugar, salt, and flour look alike; so do some chemicals. Review this in the FIFO and date-marking guide

59. 59To prevent cross-contact for a guest with a peanut allergy, the kitchen should:

    1. Pick the peanuts off the plate
    2. Serve it and warn the guest to be careful
    3. Use clean, sanitized equipment and separate utensils, and tell the server exactly what is in the dish
    4. Cook the dish longer

    Answer: C. Use clean, sanitized equipment and separate utensils, and tell the server exactly what is in the dish

    Removing an allergen from a finished plate does not work; the traces are still there. Start over with clean equipment and confirm ingredients. Review this in the exam glossary

Cleaning and sanitizing

16 questions. Rather be quizzed on them? Take the sanitizing quiz.

60. 60What is the correct sequence for a food-contact surface?

    1. Sanitize, clean, rinse, towel-dry
    2. Clean, rinse, sanitize, air-dry
    3. Clean, sanitize, rinse, towel-dry
    4. Rinse, sanitize, clean, air-dry

    Answer: B. Clean, rinse, sanitize, air-dry

    Cleaning removes soil, rinsing removes detergent, sanitizing reduces pathogens, and air-drying avoids recontaminating the surface with a towel. Sanitizer on a dirty surface does not work. Review this in the surface sanitizers guide

61. 61Your kitchen sanitizes with a quaternary ammonium (quat) solution. Which test strips do you need?

    1. Chlorine test strips
    2. pH strips
    3. Quat test strips
    4. Any strip works for any sanitizer

    Answer: C. Quat test strips

    Test strips are chemically specific. Chlorine strips will not read a quat solution correctly, and vice versa. Review this in the sanitizer test strips guide

62. 62A chlorine (bleach) sanitizing solution for food-contact surfaces is typically mixed to about:

    1. 50 to 100 ppm
    2. 5 to 10 ppm
    3. 10,000 ppm
    4. 500 to 1,000 ppm

    Answer: A. 50 to 100 ppm

    Chlorine is usually 50 to 100 ppm; quats are commonly 150 to 400 ppm per the label. Too weak does not sanitize, too strong leaves residue. Always follow the label and your local rules. Review this in the sanitizer test strips guide

63. 63What is the difference between cleaning and sanitizing?

    1. They are the same thing
    2. Cleaning removes dirt and food residue; sanitizing reduces pathogens to safe levels
    3. Sanitizing removes grease; cleaning kills bacteria
    4. Cleaning is for floors; sanitizing is for hands

    Answer: B. Cleaning removes dirt and food residue; sanitizing reduces pathogens to safe levels

    A surface can look spotless and still be unsafe. Clean first, then sanitize. Review this in the exam glossary

64. 64When sanitizing with hot water in a three-compartment sink, the water must be at least:

    1. 171°F for at least 30 seconds
    2. 140°F
    3. 120°F
    4. 212°F

    Answer: A. 171°F for at least 30 seconds

    Heat sanitizing works by immersing items in 171°F water for 30 seconds. That is too hot for hands, so use a rack or basket. Review this in the surface sanitizers guide

65. 65The final sanitizing rinse in a high-temperature dishwasher must reach:

    1. 120°F
    2. 212°F
    3. 180°F (165°F for a stationary-rack, single-temperature machine)
    4. 140°F

    Answer: C. 180°F (165°F for a stationary-rack, single-temperature machine)

    High-temperature machines sanitize with a 180°F rinse, which must bring the dish surface to at least 160°F. Check the machine gauge and use a temperature-sensitive label or thermometer. Review this in the surface sanitizers guide

66. 66Quat sanitizer generally needs how long in contact with a surface to work?

    1. 2 seconds
    2. About 30 seconds, or as the label directs
    3. 5 minutes
    4. No contact time; it works instantly

    Answer: B. About 30 seconds, or as the label directs

    Every chemical sanitizer needs contact time: chlorine several seconds, iodine and quats about 30 seconds. Spraying and immediately wiping does nothing. Review this in the sanitizer test strips guide

67. 67Iodine sanitizer is typically used at a concentration of:

    1. 50 to 100 ppm
    2. 12.5 to 25 ppm
    3. 1,000 ppm
    4. 150 to 400 ppm

    Answer: B. 12.5 to 25 ppm

    Chlorine 50 to 100 ppm, iodine 12.5 to 25 ppm, quats commonly 150 to 400 ppm per the label. Use the test strip made for your sanitizer. Review this in the sanitizer test strips guide

68. 68Which of these does NOT affect how well a chemical sanitizer works?

    1. Water temperature
    2. The brand of dish soap used earlier
    3. Contact time
    4. Concentration

    Answer: B. The brand of dish soap used earlier

    Concentration, temperature, contact time, water hardness, and pH all change sanitizer effectiveness. Detergent left on a surface can too, which is why you rinse before sanitizing. Review this in the sanitizer test strips guide

69. 69The wash water in a three-compartment sink should be at least:

    1. 110°F
    2. 70°F
    3. 171°F
    4. 180°F

    Answer: A. 110°F

    Scrape, wash in detergent at 110°F or hotter, rinse, sanitize, air-dry. Change the water when it gets dirty or cool. Review this in the surface sanitizers guide

70. 70A deli slicer used continuously for ready-to-eat meats must be cleaned and sanitized at least every:

    1. Shift
    2. 8 hours
    3. 4 hours
    4. 2 hours

    Answer: C. 4 hours

    Food-contact surfaces in continuous use with TCS food are cleaned and sanitized at least every 4 hours, plus whenever you switch foods or take a break. Review this in the one-page cheat sheet

71. 71After a customer vomits in the dining room, the operation should:

    1. Mop it up with plain water
    2. Ignore it unless food was contaminated
    3. Use the sanitizer bucket from the prep line
    4. Follow its written clean-up procedure to contain the area and disinfect it

    Answer: D. Follow its written clean-up procedure to contain the area and disinfect it

    Vomit and diarrhea can spread norovirus through the air and across surfaces. Operations must have a written procedure, with the right disinfectant and protective barriers, and use it. Review this in the exam glossary

72. 72When should the strength of a sanitizer solution be tested?

    1. Only when it smells weak
    2. Once a week
    3. When it is mixed and regularly during the shift
    4. Never; the dispenser is accurate

    Answer: C. When it is mixed and regularly during the shift

    Sanitizer weakens as it picks up soil and evaporates. Test with the matching strip when you make it and again through the shift, and remake it when it drops. Review this in the sanitizer test strips guide

73. 73Why must sanitized dishes and utensils air-dry instead of being towel-dried?

    1. It is only a preference, not a rule
    2. A towel can put bacteria right back on the clean surface
    3. Towels scratch dishes
    4. Air-drying is faster

    Answer: B. A towel can put bacteria right back on the clean surface

    Sanitizing is the last step before use. Anything that touches the surface afterward, including a towel, can recontaminate it. Review this in the surface sanitizers guide

74. 74Clean utensils kept in a bin for servers should be stored:

    1. Loose, in any direction
    2. With handles down to keep them clean
    3. With handles up, so only the handles get touched
    4. In a bin of water

    Answer: C. With handles up, so only the handles get touched

    Store utensils so the part that touches food is not touched by hands. Handles up in a clean bin, or on a clean, dry surface. Review this in the exam glossary

75. 75Chlorine sanitizer needs how long in contact with a food-contact surface?

    1. 1 hour
    2. 1 second
    3. 5 minutes
    4. At least 7 seconds, or as the label directs

    Answer: D. At least 7 seconds, or as the label directs

    Chlorine works fast, in about 7 to 10 seconds at 50 to 100 ppm, but it still needs that contact time before the surface is wiped or used. Review this in the sanitizer test strips guide

Thermometers

11 questions.

76. 76When you calibrate a thermometer with the ice-point method, a properly made ice-water bath should read:

    1. 40°F
    2. 0°F
    3. 32°F (0°C)
    4. 212°F

    Answer: C. 32°F (0°C)

    Fill a glass with ice, add water, stir, and wait. The probe should read 32°F without touching the glass. Adjust the calibration nut (dial) or use the reset function (digital) if it does not. Review this in the thermometer guide

77. 77Which thermometer should you use to check whether a roast has reached a safe internal temperature?

    1. Either one, they measure the same thing
    2. A dial thermometer touched to the outside
    3. A probe thermometer inserted into the thickest part
    4. An infrared thermometer pointed at the surface

    Answer: C. A probe thermometer inserted into the thickest part

    Food safety is about internal temperature. Only a probe in the thickest part tells you the truth; an infrared gun reads the crust. Review this in infrared vs probe thermometers

78. 78An infrared thermometer measures:

    1. Internal temperature
    2. Air temperature only
    3. Both surface and internal temperature
    4. Surface temperature only

    Answer: D. Surface temperature only

    Infrared is a screening tool for surfaces, deliveries, and equipment. It cannot verify that food is cooked through. Review this in infrared vs probe thermometers

79. 79A dial (bimetallic stem) thermometer senses from the tip to the dimple on the stem, so it must be inserted:

    1. Anywhere it fits
    2. Just the tip, about a quarter inch
    3. Halfway
    4. At least 2 inches into the thickest part of the food

    Answer: D. At least 2 inches into the thickest part of the food

    The whole sensing area has to be inside the food for an accurate reading, which is why dial thermometers are a poor choice for thin foods. Review this in the thermometer guide

80. 80Which thermometer type is best for thin foods such as a hamburger patty or fish fillet?

    1. A dial thermometer
    2. An infrared thermometer
    3. A candy thermometer
    4. A digital thermocouple or thermistor, which reads at the tip

    Answer: D. A digital thermocouple or thermistor, which reads at the tip

    Digital probes sense at the tip, so they can read a thin patty from the side. A dial stem would poke out the other end before its sensing area was covered. Review this in the thermometer guide

81. 81The boiling-point method calibrates a thermometer to:

    1. 32°F
    2. 212°F at sea level, lower at high altitude
    3. 165°F
    4. 100°F

    Answer: B. 212°F at sea level, lower at high altitude

    Water boils at 212°F at sea level and at lower temperatures as altitude rises, so the ice-point method (32°F) is more reliable in most kitchens. Review this in the thermometer guide

82. 82A food thermometer must be accurate to within:

    1. 0.1°F
    2. 5°F
    3. 10°F
    4. 2°F (1°C)

    Answer: D. 2°F (1°C)

    Thermometers used for food must be accurate to plus or minus 2°F. Air thermometers in coolers can be less precise, within 3°F. Review this in the thermometer guide

83. 83Which thermometer must not be used to check food temperatures in a kitchen?

    1. A dial thermometer
    2. An infrared thermometer for surfaces
    3. A glass mercury thermometer
    4. A digital probe thermometer

    Answer: C. A glass mercury thermometer

    Glass can shatter into food and mercury is toxic. Glass thermometers are only allowed inside a shatterproof casing. Review this in the thermometer guide

84. 84After checking raw chicken and before checking a cooked roast, the probe must be:

    1. Nothing; the roast is hot
    2. Cleaned and sanitized
    3. Wiped on a towel
    4. Rinsed in the handwashing sink

    Answer: B. Cleaned and sanitized

    The probe is a food-contact surface. Clean and sanitize it between foods, especially between raw and cooked, with a sanitizer wipe or a dip and air-dry. Review this in the thermometer guide

85. 85Where should you insert a probe to check whether a whole roast is done?

    1. Near the surface where it browns
    2. Into the pan juices
    3. Against the bone
    4. Into the thickest part, away from bone, fat, and the pan

    Answer: D. Into the thickest part, away from bone, fat, and the pan

    The center of the thickest part is the last to come up to temperature. Bone conducts heat and fat runs hot, so both give false readings. Review this in the thermometer guide

86. 86How long should you wait after inserting a dial thermometer before reading it?

    1. 2 minutes
    2. Read it immediately
    3. 1 second
    4. About 15 seconds, until the needle stops moving

    Answer: D. About 15 seconds, until the needle stops moving

    Dial thermometers are slow. Wait until the reading stabilizes, about 15 seconds. Digital thermometers stabilize in a few seconds. Review this in the thermometer guide

Pests and HACCP

12 questions.

87. 87Who may apply pesticides inside a food facility?

    1. Anyone wearing gloves
    2. A licensed pest control operator
    3. The closer on the night shift
    4. Any manager

    Answer: B. A licensed pest control operator

    Report pests to the manager; only licensed professionals apply pesticides in a food facility. Your job is prevention: seal gaps, store food off the floor, and take out garbage promptly. Review this in the exam glossary

88. 88HACCP stands for:

    1. Handwashing And Cross-Contamination Prevention
    2. Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points
    3. Hot And Cold Cooking Procedures
    4. Health And Cleaning Control Program

    Answer: B. Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points

    Identify where hazards can occur, find the steps where they can be prevented (the critical control points), and monitor those steps. Review this in the exam glossary

89. 89Droppings, gnaw marks, and shredded nesting material are signs of:

    1. Flies
    2. Rodents
    3. Ants
    4. Cockroaches

    Answer: B. Rodents

    Mice and rats leave droppings, gnawed packaging, and nests. Report signs to the manager right away and check deliveries for them too. Review this in the exam glossary

90. 90A strong oily odor, egg casings, and small dark droppings usually mean:

    1. Birds
    2. Rodents
    3. Fruit flies
    4. Cockroaches

    Answer: D. Cockroaches

    Cockroaches hide in warm, damp, dark places and come out at night. Their casings and smell are often the only clue. Review this in the exam glossary

91. 91The most important pest control step a food handler can take is:

    1. Deny pests food, water, and shelter by keeping the operation clean and sealed
    2. Set glue traps everywhere
    3. Prop the back door open to air out the kitchen
    4. Spray pesticide every week

    Answer: A. Deny pests food, water, and shelter by keeping the operation clean and sealed

    Pests come for food, water, and a place to hide. Sealed doors and screens, prompt garbage removal, dry floors, and covered food do more than any spray. Review this in the exam glossary

92. 92In a HACCP plan, cooking chicken to 165°F is an example of a:

    1. Critical limit at a critical control point
    2. Corrective action
    3. Verification step
    4. Hazard analysis

    Answer: A. Critical limit at a critical control point

    A critical control point is a step where a hazard can be controlled (cooking). The critical limit is the measurable target that step must meet (165°F). Review this in the exam glossary

93. 93A cook finds that a batch of chicken only reached 150°F. Continuing to cook it to 165°F is an example of a:

    1. Record-keeping step
    2. Critical limit
    3. Hazard analysis
    4. Corrective action

    Answer: D. Corrective action

    When monitoring shows a critical limit was missed, the corrective action fixes the problem: keep cooking, or discard the food if it cannot be fixed. Review this in the exam glossary

94. 94A foodborne illness outbreak is:

    1. One person getting sick after a meal
    2. Two or more people getting the same illness after eating the same food
    3. Any complaint about food
    4. A health inspection failure

    Answer: B. Two or more people getting the same illness after eating the same food

    Health departments confirm an outbreak when two or more cases are linked to the same food. Keeping records and shellfish tags helps them trace it. Review this in the exam glossary

95. 95A metal shaving from a worn can opener falling into food is what kind of contaminant?

    1. Physical
    2. Allergenic
    3. Chemical
    4. Biological

    Answer: A. Physical

    Physical contaminants are objects: metal, glass, bandages, hair, fruit pits. Biological means germs; chemical means cleaners, pesticides, and the like. Review this in the exam glossary

96. 96Food for a restaurant must come from:

    1. A roadside stand with a good reputation
    2. A staff member who cooks at home
    3. Approved, reputable suppliers
    4. Any grocery store with good prices

    Answer: C. Approved, reputable suppliers

    Approved sources are inspected and meet food safety standards. Food prepared in a private home cannot be served in a food establishment. Review this in the exam glossary

97. 97Which group is considered highly susceptible to foodborne illness?

    1. People who cook at home
    2. Teenagers
    3. Athletes
    4. Young children, older adults, pregnant people, and anyone with a weakened immune system

    Answer: D. Young children, older adults, pregnant people, and anyone with a weakened immune system

    These groups get sick more easily and more seriously, which is why hospitals, nursing homes, and day cares follow stricter rules. Review this in the exam glossary

98. 98Which practice prevents chemical contamination of food?

    1. Mixing sanitizer in a food storage container
    2. Storing chemicals away from food and using only food-grade lubricants on equipment
    3. Keeping cleaning spray on the prep table for quick use
    4. Storing pesticides above the dry goods

    Answer: B. Storing chemicals away from food and using only food-grade lubricants on equipment

    Chemicals must be labeled, stored away from food, and used as directed. Only food-grade lubricants belong on equipment that touches food. Review this in the exam glossary

Study the answers on the go

Reading every question twice is the slow way to learn them. "Food Handler Card Audio Cram," our own roughly 57-minute audio session from Kanti Press, covers the same rules in a listen-through format, so the numbers stick without a screen.

Rather test yourself on paper? The Food Handler Practice Exam Pack, also from Kanti Press, is 100 more questions, set as four printable exams of 25 with four choices each and an answer key at the back.

Is this the real exam?

No. Every accredited training provider writes its own exam, and some health districts give their own test, so no site can show you the real questions. What they share is the material: all of them test the same FDA Food Code rules these questions are built on. If you can explain the answers on this page, you are ready for whichever version you get. You still need to pass the official exam your employer or health department accepts; our requirements-by-state guide explains which one that is.

Frequently Asked Questions

How many questions are on the food handler test?

It depends on the provider. Most food handler exams are multiple choice, commonly around 40 questions, and most people finish in 20 to 40 minutes. Some are shorter: the Southern Nevada Health District's first-time test has 20 questions, and its renewal test has 10.

What score do I need to pass the food handler test?

Usually 70% or higher, though the exact cutoff is set by the provider or the program. Some state programs, such as Oregon's and Utah's, require 75%. Check the guide for your state before test day.

Should I memorize these answers?

Learn the reasons instead. Your real exam will word the questions differently and mix up the choices, so memorized letters won't help. The numbers are what matter: 41°F and 135°F for the danger zone, 165°F, 155°F, and 145°F for cooking, and the 2-hour and 4-hour cooling stages. The one-page cheat sheet puts all of them in one place.