ServSafe Manager Practice Exam

Answer Sheet

Set a timer for two hours. Write one letter per line, then score yourself with Part Two. Sixty three or more out of ninety is the seventy percent line.

Part One: The Exam

This is a full length practice exam in the format of the real test: ninety multiple choice questions, four options each, one correct answer. Take it under exam conditions. Set a timer for two hours, put the chapters away, and answer every question before you check anything. On the real exam, fifty six of the eighty scored questions, seventy percent, is a pass. Here every question counts, so treat sixty three correct out of ninety, the same seventy percent, as the line to beat. Write each letter on the answer sheet as you go, then turn to Part Two for the answers and the reasons. The answer key names the chapter of the audiobook to replay for every question you miss.

Question 1. Which temperature range is the temperature danger zone?
A. 32°F to 212°F
B. 41°F to 135°F
C. 45°F to 140°F
D. 70°F to 125°F

Question 2. Within the danger zone, bacteria grow fastest between which temperatures?
A. 41°F and 70°F
B. 50°F and 100°F
C. 70°F and 125°F
D. 125°F and 135°F

Question 3. A cook is roasting a whole beef roast. What is the minimum internal cooking temperature and hold time?
A. 135°F for 15 seconds
B. 145°F for 15 seconds
C. 155°F for 17 seconds
D. 145°F for 4 minutes

Question 4. Ground beef patties for hamburgers must reach what minimum internal temperature?
A. 155°F for 17 seconds
B. 135°F
C. 145°F for 15 seconds
D. 165°F

Question 5. Chicken breasts on the grill must reach what minimum internal temperature?
A. 145°F for 15 seconds
B. 155°F for 17 seconds
C. 165°F, held for 4 minutes
D. 165°F, instantaneous

Question 6. A cook prepares pork chops stuffed with crab meat. What minimum internal temperature must they reach?
A. 135°F
B. 145°F
C. 155°F
D. 165°F

Question 7. Green beans are being cooked for the hot holding line. What minimum internal temperature must they reach?
A. 135°F
B. 145°F
C. 155°F
D. 165°F

Question 8. Commercially processed chicken nuggets from a sealed, intact package are being heated for hot holding. What minimum internal temperature must they reach?
A. 135°F
B. 145°F
C. 155°F
D. 165°F

Question 9. Beef stew made yesterday is being reheated for the steam table. What is the rule?
A. Reheat it to 165°F within 2 hours
B. Reheat it to 135°F within 4 hours
C. Reheat it to 155°F within 2 hours
D. Reheat it to 165°F within 4 hours

Question 10. A stockpot of soup started cooling at 135°F. Two hours later it reads 80°F. What must the cook do?
A. Keep cooling it; it has 4 more hours to reach 41°F
B. Reheat it to 165°F and start cooling again with a faster method, or discard it
C. Put it in the walk in cooler with the lid on
D. Serve it immediately

Question 11. A batch of chili cooled from 135°F to 70°F in one hour. How much time remains to bring it to 41°F or below?
A. 1 hour
B. 3 hours
C. 4 hours
D. 5 hours

Question 12. Mashed potatoes on the steam table read 128°F. The last temperature check, 90 minutes ago, was 140°F. What should the manager do?
A. Discard the potatoes
B. Turn up the steam table and keep serving
C. Reheat them to 165°F and return them to hot holding
D. Move them to the cooler

Question 13. A cold pasta salad on the buffet reads 48°F, and no one knows when it went above 41°F. What should the manager do?
A. Chill it back to 41°F and keep serving
B. Serve it within the next 2 hours
C. Discard it
D. Reheat it to 165°F

Question 14. Food cooked in a microwave must reach 165°F, be covered, be rotated or stirred, and then what?
A. Be served within 15 seconds
B. Be cooled to 135°F
C. Be checked in three places
D. Stand for 2 minutes before serving

Question 15. A guest orders a hot roast beef sandwich, and the cook reheats cooked roast beef for that single order. What is the minimum reheating temperature?
A. 135°F
B. 155°F
C. 165°F
D. There is no minimum when reheating for immediate service

Question 16. An operation holds hot food on a buffet without temperature control, using time as a public health control. Which is required?
A. A label on each container with the time the food must be discarded
B. Checking the food's temperature every hour
C. Reheating the food after 4 hours
D. Keeping the food above 70°F

Question 17. Cold food held using time as a public health control may stay out for up to 6 hours only if what is true?
A. It is kept covered
B. It was cooked that day
C. It never exceeds 70°F and is monitored
D. It is stirred every 2 hours

Question 18. A probe thermometer used to check food temperatures must be accurate to within how many degrees?
A. 1°F
B. 2°F
C. 5°F
D. 10°F

Question 19. A restaurant serves raw oysters. What must its menu include?
A. The oysters' harvest date
B. The supplier's name
C. A consumer advisory with a disclosure and a reminder about the risk of raw or undercooked animal foods
D. Nothing extra; oysters are exempt

Question 20. Which operation must never serve raw or undercooked animal foods?
A. A steakhouse
B. A sushi restaurant
C. A food truck
D. A nursing home dining room

Question 21. A case of fresh fish fillets arrives at 45°F. What should the receiver do?
A. Accept it and cool it to 41°F within 4 hours
B. Accept it, since the fish will be cooked to 145°F
C. Reject it; cold TCS food must be received at 41°F or below
D. Accept it if it is frozen within 2 hours

Question 22. Shell eggs must be received at what air temperature?
A. 41°F or below
B. 45°F or below
C. 50°F or below
D. 55°F or below

Question 23. A milk delivery arrives at 45°F. What should the manager do?
A. Reject it
B. Accept it and hold it at 45°F
C. Accept it only if it will be used the same day
D. Accept it and cool it to 41°F or below within 4 hours

Question 24. Live oysters arrive. What is the maximum internal temperature at receiving, and what must happen next?
A. 41°F; use within 24 hours
B. 45°F; freeze immediately
C. 50°F; cool to 41°F or below within 4 hours
D. 55°F; cook within 2 hours

Question 25. How long must shellstock identification tags be kept?
A. 90 days from the date the container is emptied
B. 7 days from delivery
C. 30 days from delivery
D. 1 year

Question 26. A delivery of frozen shrimp has large ice crystals on the product and fluid stains on the box. What should the receiver do?
A. Reject it; it shows signs of thawing and refreezing
B. Accept it and freeze it again immediately
C. Accept it and cook it that day
D. Accept it if the truck was cold

Question 27. A walk in cooler holds raw whole chickens, raw ground beef, raw salmon fillets, and cooked rice. Which belongs on the bottom shelf?
A. Cooked rice
B. Raw salmon
C. Raw ground beef
D. Raw whole chickens

Question 28. A cooler is arranged top to bottom: cooked rice, raw ground beef, raw salmon, raw chicken. What is wrong?
A. Nothing; the order is correct
B. The chicken should be on top
C. The salmon must be stored above the ground beef
D. The rice should be on the bottom

Question 29. Tuna salad is prepared on Monday and held at 41°F. By the end of which day must it be used or discarded?
A. Wednesday
B. Friday
C. Saturday
D. Sunday

Question 30. Chicken salad is made today from chicken that was cooked three days ago. How is its discard date set?
A. Seven days from today
B. By the chicken, the oldest ingredient
C. By the mayonnaise
D. It needs no date because it was made today

Question 31. Flour is moved from its original bag into a plastic bin. What must be on the bin?
A. The delivery date
B. The supplier's name
C. A use by date only
D. The common name of the food

Question 32. Yesterday's delivery of yogurt has a use by date of the 20th. Today's delivery has a use by date of the 18th. Which should be used first?
A. Yesterday's, because first in, first out
B. Either one
C. Neither; both must be discarded
D. Today's, because the earliest use by date is used first

Question 33. Which document must be accessible wherever hazardous chemicals are stored and used?
A. The Safety Data Sheet
B. The invoice
C. The HACCP plan
D. The pest control contract

Question 34. Which is the only completely reliable way to prevent backflow into the drinking water supply?
A. A vacuum breaker
B. A check valve
C. An air gap
D. A grease trap

Question 35. Frozen chicken is being slacked before deep frying. During slacking it must never rise above what temperature?
A. 41°F
B. 45°F
C. 70°F
D. 135°F

Question 36. A kitchen partially cooks chicken wings to finish later. The initial cooking step may last no longer than how long?
A. 60 minutes
B. 15 minutes
C. 30 minutes
D. 2 hours

Question 37. A cook preps a large batch of cold sandwiches at room temperature, and they are then displayed for service. What is the maximum combined time the sandwiches may spend in the danger zone during prep and service?
A. 2 hours
B. 4 hours
C. 6 hours
D. 8 hours

Question 38. A guest returns to the self service buffet for a second helping. What should the server do?
A. Give the guest a clean plate
B. Let the guest reuse the same plate
C. Wipe the guest's plate with a cloth
D. Ask the guest to rinse the plate

Question 39. A local farmer offers to sell fresh eggs at the kitchen's back door. What should the manager do?
A. Accept them if they are cheaper
B. Accept them if they arrive cold
C. Decline; food must come from approved, reputable suppliers
D. Accept them and inspect them

Question 40. Which pathogen is not one of the Big Six?
A. Norovirus
B. Hepatitis A
C. Shigella
D. Listeria monocytogenes

Question 41. A food handler is diagnosed with Salmonella Typhi. What must the manager do?
A. Restrict the handler from food contact
B. Exclude the handler and notify the regulatory authority
C. Send the handler home for 24 hours
D. Let the handler work with gloves

Question 42. Which situation meets the definition of a foodborne illness outbreak?
A. One guest reports nausea after a meal
B. A cook calls in sick with a cold
C. A pathogen is found in a raw ingredient
D. Two or more people develop the same illness after eating the same food

Question 43. Which pathogen grows at refrigeration temperatures and is linked to ready to eat deli meats and soft cheeses?
A. Clostridium perfringens
B. Listeria monocytogenes
C. Bacillus cereus
D. Vibrio

Question 44. Several guests vomit within hours of eating fried rice that sat at room temperature. Which pathogen is the most likely cause?
A. Bacillus cereus
B. Hepatitis A
C. Anisakis
D. Salmonella Typhi

Question 45. A guest who ate home canned green beans develops double vision and difficulty swallowing. Which pathogen is most likely?
A. Norovirus
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Shigella
D. Clostridium botulinum

Question 46. A cook with an infected cut on his hand mixed a potato salad with bare hands, and guests became ill within hours. Which is the most likely cause?
A. Staphylococcus aureus toxin, which cooking does not destroy
B. Hepatitis A
C. Trichinella
D. Vibrio

Question 47. Which statement about hepatitis A is correct?
A. Cooking destroys the virus
B. Infected people can be contagious for weeks before symptoms appear
C. It is found mainly in undercooked beef
D. It is not one of the Big Six

Question 48. Raw oysters from contaminated water are most commonly linked to which pathogen, one that can be fatal for people with chronic conditions?
A. Vibrio
B. Bacillus cereus
C. Clostridium perfringens
D. Trichinella

Question 49. Fish that will be served raw in sushi must be frozen to destroy parasites. Which is an acceptable method?
A. 0°F for 24 hours
B. Negative 4°F or below for 7 days
C. 32°F for 7 days
D. Negative 31°F or below for 15 minutes

Question 50. Guests become ill within two hours of eating. This fast onset is typical of which type of foodborne illness?
A. A foodborne intoxication
B. A foodborne infection
C. A parasitic infection
D. A chemical allergy

Question 51. A guest finds a piece of a bandage in her soup. This is an example of which type of contamination?
A. Biological
B. Chemical
C. Physical
D. Cross contact

Question 52. Which food is not one of the nine major allergens under United States law?
A. Sesame
B. Soybeans
C. Crustacean shellfish
D. Clams

Question 53. A guest with a peanut allergy orders a dish. After the dish is prepared safely, what is the best way to get it to the guest?
A. Put it in the pass with the other orders
B. Let any available server deliver it
C. Cover it with foil
D. Have the person who prepared it hand it directly to the guest

Question 54. French fries are cooked in the same oil as breaded shrimp. A guest allergic to shellfish orders fries. What is the risk?
A. None; the oil is hot enough to destroy allergens
B. Cross contact: shellfish protein in the oil can cause a reaction
C. Cross contamination with Vibrio
D. A physical hazard

Question 55. A guest's lips swell and she has trouble breathing after eating. What should the manager do first?
A. Give the guest water
B. Call 911
C. Ask what she ate
D. Bring the guest an antihistamine

Question 56. In the ServSafe handwashing procedure, hands and arms are scrubbed with soap for how long?
A. 5 seconds
B. 10 to 15 seconds
C. 30 seconds
D. 60 seconds

Question 57. Water at a handwashing sink must be at least what temperature?
A. 70°F
B. 85°F
C. 100°F
D. 110°F

Question 58. A handwashing station is being set up. Which item is required?
A. A hand sanitizer dispenser
B. A three compartment sink
C. A drain plug
D. A sign telling employees to wash their hands

Question 59. A cook wearing gloves finishes portioning raw chicken and reaches for lettuce to build a salad. What must the cook do first?
A. Rinse the gloves
B. Remove the gloves, wash hands, and put on new gloves
C. Put a second pair of gloves over the first
D. Nothing; gloves protect the food

Question 60. Which task may be done with bare hands?
A. Plating a garden salad
B. Slicing bread for service
C. Adding chopped onions to a soup that will be cooked
D. Garnishing a finished plate

Question 61. A food handler reports vomiting last night but feels fine this morning. What must the manager do?
A. Exclude the handler until at least 24 hours symptom free, or until cleared in writing by a medical practitioner
B. Let the handler work in the dish area
C. Restrict the handler to food prep
D. Let the handler work with gloves

Question 62. A food handler at a hospital cafeteria reports a sore throat with a fever. What must the manager do?
A. Restrict the handler from food contact
B. Exclude the handler from the operation
C. Let the handler serve trays
D. Send the handler to the dish room

Question 63. A food handler arrives with yellow eyes and skin, and says it started three days ago. What must the manager do?
A. Restrict the handler
B. Send the handler home for the day
C. Let the handler work if she feels well
D. Exclude the handler and report the jaundice to the regulatory authority

Question 64. A cook has an infected cut on the back of her hand. What must be done before she handles food?
A. She must be excluded from the operation
B. The cut must be covered with a standard adhesive bandage
C. The cut must be covered with an impermeable bandage and a single use glove
D. She must be restricted for 7 days

Question 65. How must a floor mounted mixer be installed?
A. On legs at least 6 inches high, or sealed to a masonry base
B. Directly on the floor
C. On legs at least 2 inches high
D. On a wooden platform

Question 66. A cook wants to keep a drink on the prep line. What is allowed?
A. A covered container with a straw, stored where it cannot spill onto food or surfaces
B. An open cup kept away from food
C. Any drink, as long as it is water
D. No drinks anywhere in the kitchen

Question 67. What is the difference between cleaning and sanitizing?
A. They are the same thing
B. Cleaning removes food and dirt; sanitizing reduces pathogens to safe levels
C. Cleaning kills pathogens; sanitizing removes grease
D. Sanitizing is only for floors

Question 68. What is the correct order for cleaning and sanitizing a prep table?
A. Sanitize, clean, rinse, air dry
B. Clean, sanitize, rinse, towel dry
C. Clean, rinse, sanitize, air dry
D. Rinse, sanitize, clean, air dry

Question 69. A test kit shows a chlorine sanitizer solution at 25 parts per million. What should the manager do?
A. Use it; anything above 10 parts per million is fine
B. Add water
C. Switch to hot water only
D. Add sanitizer to reach 50 to 100 parts per million, then retest

Question 70. What is the minimum contact time for a quaternary ammonium sanitizer?
A. 7 seconds
B. 15 seconds
C. 30 seconds
D. 2 minutes

Question 71. What is the correct concentration range for an iodine sanitizer?
A. 12.5 to 25 parts per million
B. 50 to 100 parts per million
C. 150 to 200 parts per million
D. 300 to 400 parts per million

Question 72. A cook doubles the amount of sanitizer in the wiping cloth bucket to be safe. Why is this wrong?
A. It wastes money
B. It makes the cloths too wet
C. Sanitizer above the labeled concentration can contaminate food
D. It is not wrong

Question 73. In a high temperature dish machine, the final sanitizing rinse must reach at least what temperature?
A. 110°F
B. 135°F
C. 165°F
D. 180°F

Question 74. In a three compartment sink, the wash water must be at least what temperature?
A. 70°F
B. 100°F
C. 110°F
D. 180°F

Question 75. A meat slicer is in constant use all afternoon. How often must it be cleaned and sanitized?
A. At least every 4 hours
B. Once at closing
C. Every hour
D. Only when switching from raw to ready to eat food

Question 76. A dishwasher empties a mop bucket into the handwashing sink. What is wrong?
A. Nothing, if the sink is rinsed afterward
B. Handwashing sinks may be used only for handwashing
C. Mop water must go in the three compartment sink
D. Mop water must be poured outside

Question 77. A manager finds gnaw marks on flour bags and small dark droppings in dry storage. Which pest do these signs point to?
A. Cockroaches
B. Flies
C. Ants
D. Rodents

Question 78. Who may apply pesticides in a food operation?
A. Any employee, as long as it is after hours
B. The manager only
C. No one; pesticides may never be used in a food operation
D. A licensed pest control operator, or a trained employee following the label directions

Question 79. What is the first principle of a HACCP plan?
A. Establish critical limits
B. Conduct a hazard analysis
C. Establish monitoring procedures
D. Identify corrective actions

Question 80. A HACCP plan identifies cooking chicken to 165°F as a control. Which part is the critical limit?
A. Cooking
B. The chicken
C. 165°F
D. The thermometer

Question 81. A cook checks the internal temperature of a roast with a thermometer during cooking. Which HACCP principle is this?
A. Monitoring
B. Hazard analysis
C. Verification
D. Record keeping

Question 82. Soup on the hot line is found at 120°F, and the cook reheats it to 165°F before returning it to holding. Which HACCP principle is this?
A. Critical limit
B. Corrective action
C. Verification
D. Hazard analysis

Question 83. The manager reviews the week's temperature logs to confirm the HACCP plan is working. Which principle is this?
A. Monitoring
B. Corrective action
C. Verification
D. Determining critical control points

Question 84. Which practice requires a variance from the regulatory authority?
A. Curing meats in house
B. Cooling soup in an ice bath
C. Serving raw oysters with a consumer advisory
D. Marinating chicken overnight in the cooler

Question 85. Fish packaged on site using reduced oxygen packaging must be what?
A. Cooked before packaging
B. Frozen before, during, or after packaging
C. Labeled with a consumer advisory
D. Held above 41°F

Question 86. Sewage backs up into the kitchen floor drains. What must the manager do?
A. Mop it up and keep serving
B. Close the affected area only
C. Call a plumber and continue service
D. Stop operations and notify the regulatory authority

Question 87. Which is not an imminent health hazard that requires the operation to stop?
A. No hot water
B. A broken dish machine
C. A sewage backup
D. A fire in the kitchen

Question 88. When must a person in charge be present in the operation?
A. During the lunch rush only
B. During health inspections only
C. During all hours of operation
D. During deliveries only

Question 89. A manager learns the health inspector will visit tomorrow. What should the staff do differently?
A. Deep clean everything tonight
B. Nothing; the operation should be inspection ready every day
C. Discard all TCS food
D. Send home any employees without food handler cards

Question 90. A food handler is excluded after being diagnosed with norovirus. What must happen to the food she prepared before reporting her illness?
A. It must be thrown out
B. It may be served if reheated to 165°F
C. It may be served if it was kept cold
D. It may be donated

That is the end of the practice exam. Count your answers, then turn to Part Two for the key.

Part Two: Answer Key

Here is every answer with the reason and the chapter to replay. Score yourself: sixty three or more out of ninety clears the seventy percent line. Under that, replay the chapters that appear most often in your misses before you take the exam again.

Question 1: B. The danger zone is 41°F to 135°F. Chapter 2.

Question 2: C. Bacteria grow fastest between 70°F and 125°F. Chapter 2.

Question 3: D. Roasts are the exception: 145°F held for 4 minutes. Chapter 2.

Question 4: A. Ground meat is 155°F for 17 seconds. Chapter 2.

Question 5: D. Poultry is 165°F, instantaneous, under one second. Chapter 2.

Question 6: D. Stuffed meats reach 165°F. Chapter 2.

Question 7: A. Fruits, vegetables, grains, and legumes cooked for hot holding reach 135°F. Chapter 2.

Question 8: A. Commercially processed ready to eat food from a sealed package only needs 135°F. Chapter 2.

Question 9: A. Food reheated for hot holding reaches 165°F within 2 hours. Chapter 2.

Question 10: B. The first cooling stage, 135°F to 70°F, must finish within 2 hours. Failing it means reheat to 165°F and restart with a better method, or discard. Chapter 2.

Question 11: D. Six hours total. One hour used, five remain. Chapter 2.

Question 12: C. The last check within 2 hours was at or above 135°F, so reheat to 165°F and return to holding. Chapter 2.

Question 13: C. Unknown time out of temperature means discard. Chapter 2.

Question 14: D. Microwaved food stands 2 minutes after cooking. Chapter 2.

Question 15: D. Reheating for immediate service has no minimum; 165°F applies to reheating for hot holding. Chapter 2.

Question 16: A. Time as a public health control requires written procedures and a discard time on every container. Chapter 2.

Question 17: C. The six hour option is cold food only, never above 70°F, and monitored. Chapter 2.

Question 18: B. Food thermometers must be accurate within 2°F. Chapter 2.

Question 19: C. A consumer advisory has two parts, a disclosure and a reminder. Chapter 2.

Question 20: D. High risk populations, such as nursing home residents, must never be served raw or undercooked animal foods. Chapters 2 and 7.

Question 21: C. Cold TCS food is received at 41°F or below; the 45°F allowance is only for shell eggs, milk, and shucked shellfish. Chapter 5.

Question 22: B. Shell eggs are received at an air temperature of 45°F or below. Chapter 5.

Question 23: D. Milk may arrive at 45°F and must be cooled to 41°F within 4 hours. Chapter 5.

Question 24: C. Live shellfish: internal temperature 50°F or below, then cool to 41°F within 4 hours. Chapter 5.

Question 25: A. Shellstock tags are kept 90 days from the date the container is emptied. Chapter 5.

Question 26: A. Ice crystals and fluid stains are signs of thawing and refreezing. Reject. Chapter 5.

Question 27: D. Poultry has the highest cooking temperature, so it goes on the bottom. Chapter 5.

Question 28: C. Storage follows cooking temperature. Seafood, 145°F, sits above ground meat, 155°F. Chapter 5.

Question 29: D. Seven days with the preparation day as day one: Monday is day one, Sunday is day seven. Chapter 5.

Question 30: B. Combined foods take the discard date of the oldest ingredient. Chapter 5.

Question 31: D. Food moved out of its original container must be labeled with its common name. Chapter 5.

Question 32: D. Use by dates take priority over first in, first out. Chapter 5.

Question 33: A. The Safety Data Sheet must be accessible wherever chemicals are used and stored. Chapter 5.

Question 34: C. An air gap is the only completely reliable backflow prevention; mechanical devices come second. Chapter 8.

Question 35: A. Slacking must never let food rise above 41°F. Chapter 6.

Question 36: A. The initial par cooking step must be 60 minutes or less. Chapter 6.

Question 37: B. Preparation and service together get a maximum of 4 hours in the danger zone. Chapter 6.

Question 38: A. Refills and second helpings go on clean plates. Chapter 6.

Question 39: C. Buy only from approved, reputable suppliers. Chapter 5.

Question 40: D. Listeria is dangerous but is not one of the Big Six. Chapter 3.

Question 41: B. Any Big Six diagnosis means exclude and notify the regulatory authority. Chapters 3 and 4.

Question 42: D. An outbreak is two or more people with the same illness from the same food. Chapter 3.

Question 43: B. Listeria monocytogenes grows under refrigeration and is linked to deli meats and soft cheeses. Chapter 3.

Question 44: A. The vomiting type of Bacillus cereus illness is the classic fried rice case. Chapter 3.

Question 45: D. Double vision and difficulty swallowing after incorrectly canned food point to Clostridium botulinum. Chapter 3.

Question 46: A. Staphylococcus aureus from an infected cut produces a toxin that cooking does not destroy, with a fast onset. Chapter 3.

Question 47: B. Hepatitis A is not destroyed by cooking, and infected people can be contagious for weeks before symptoms. Chapter 3.

Question 48: A. Vibrio is linked to oysters from contaminated water and can cause fatal illness in people with chronic conditions. Chapter 3.

Question 49: B. Negative 4°F or below for 7 days, or negative 31°F or below for 15 hours. Chapter 3.

Question 50: A. Intoxications, from toxins already in the food, have a fast onset. Chapter 3.

Question 51: C. A bandage in food is a physical contaminant. Chapter 3.

Question 52: D. Mollusks such as clams are not on the list of nine major allergens; crustacean shellfish are. Chapter 7.

Question 53: D. Hand the allergen free dish directly to the guest so no one else can contaminate it. Chapter 7.

Question 54: B. Shared fryer oil causes allergen cross contact. Chapter 7.

Question 55: B. Signs of anaphylaxis mean call 911. Chapter 7.

Question 56: B. Scrub for 10 to 15 seconds within a 20 second handwash. Chapter 4.

Question 57: C. The handwashing sink water must be at least 100°F. Chapter 4.

Question 58: D. A handwashing station needs hot and cold running water, soap, a way to dry hands, a garbage container, and a sign. Chapter 8.

Question 59: B. Change gloves and wash hands when switching from raw meat to ready to eat food. Chapter 4.

Question 60: C. Bare hands are allowed on ingredients that will be cooked to the proper temperature, and for washing produce. Chapter 4.

Question 61: A. Vomiting means exclusion until 24 hours symptom free or written medical clearance. Chapter 4.

Question 62: B. A sore throat with fever is exclusion, not restriction, when the operation serves a high risk population. Chapter 4.

Question 63: D. Jaundice within the last 7 days means exclude and report to the regulatory authority. Chapter 4.

Question 64: C. Hand wounds are covered with an impermeable bandage and a single use glove. Chapter 4.

Question 65: A. Floor mounted equipment goes on legs at least 6 inches high or is sealed to a masonry base; tabletop equipment on legs at least 4 inches high or sealed to the counter. Chapter 8.

Question 66: A. Drinks must be in a covered container with a straw, kept away from food and surfaces. Chapter 4.

Question 67: B. Cleaning removes soil; sanitizing reduces pathogens to safe levels. Chapter 8.

Question 68: C. Clean, rinse, sanitize, air dry. Chapter 8.

Question 69: D. Chlorine must be 50 to 100 parts per million; 25 is too weak. Chapter 8.

Question 70: C. Quats need at least 30 seconds of contact time. Chapter 8.

Question 71: A. Iodine is 12.5 to 25 parts per million. Chapter 8.

Question 72: C. Sanitizer above the labeled concentration can contaminate food. Stronger is not safer. Chapter 8.

Question 73: D. The final sanitizing rinse in a high temperature machine reaches 180°F. Chapter 8.

Question 74: C. Wash water in the three compartment sink is at least 110°F. Chapter 8.

Question 75: A. Food contact surfaces in constant use are cleaned and sanitized at least every 4 hours. Chapter 8.

Question 76: B. Handwashing sinks are for handwashing only. Chapter 8.

Question 77: D. Gnaw marks and droppings are signs of rodents. Chapter 8.

Question 78: D. Pesticides are applied per label directions by a licensed pest control operator or a trained employee. Chapter 8.

Question 79: B. The first HACCP principle is the hazard analysis. Chapter 9.

Question 80: C. The critical control point is the step, cooking; the critical limit is the number, 165°F. Chapter 9.

Question 81: A. Taking the temperature to check a critical limit is monitoring. Chapter 9.

Question 82: B. Fixing a failed critical limit is a corrective action. Chapter 9.

Question 83: C. Reviewing logs to confirm the plan works is verification. Chapter 9.

Question 84: A. Curing food requires a variance. Chapter 9.

Question 85: B. Reduced oxygen packaged fish must be frozen before, during, or after packaging. Chapter 9.

Question 86: D. A sewage backup is an imminent health hazard: stop operations and notify the regulatory authority. Chapter 9.

Question 87: B. A broken dish machine is a problem, not an imminent health hazard; dishes can go through the three compartment sink. Chapter 9.

Question 88: C. The person in charge must be present during all hours of operation. Chapter 9.

Question 89: B. Operate inspection ready every day; nothing changes when the inspector is coming. Chapter 9.

Question 90: A. Food handled by an excluded worker must be thrown out. Chapter 4.

If you scored sixty three or better, you are ready. If not, you now know exactly which chapters to replay. Run the drill in Chapter Ten of the audiobook once more, take this exam again in a few days, and go pass the real one.